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hypnosifl's avatar

"First, if there are relatively broad correlations, ties become less likely, and so the likelihood that my vote will be pivotal decreases"

If I am considering a form of evidential decision theory where my own vote influences the probability I assign to many others voting similarly, wouldn't I no longer be interested in the question of whether my individual vote is "pivotal" (in the sense of being a tie-breaker) but just the total probability that blue vs. red wins given the shift in probability distribution by my voting either red or blue?

"Combined, these two effects might raise the impact of my vote by a couple of orders of magnitude. While that’s a relatively substantial difference, the chance that my voting blue will make a positive difference is still negligible, something around 10-8 or 10-9."

Is this number premised on the idea that my vote must be the tie-breaker to "make a positive difference"?

"On the other hand, if I’m updating on expected correlations between myself and others, I should think that there are a lot more people who will reason similarly to me who will ultimately vote red than there are in the bloc that would correlate with me from before. If this is right, then updating on this broader correlative data will lead me to expect more total red voters conditional on my voting blue than I would have otherwise expected without that evidence as background."

I don't understand this part, can you elaborate on why, if my vote is correlated with others, my voting blue could be associated with believing there are more total red voters?

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